| Fiscal
Year 1999 |
September 1999
|
| Up
Front: |
|
EMTALA
SERVICES
Under the provisions of the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor
Act (EMTALA), a hospital with an emergency department must provide, upon
request and within the capabilities of the hospital, an appropriate medical
screening examination and stabilizing treatment to any individual with
an emergency medical condition and to any woman in active labor, regardless
of the individuals eligibility for Medicare.
The general
classification of revenue code 450 should not be used in conjunction with
any subcategory. The sum of revenue codes 451 and 452 is equivalent to
code 450.
Stand alone
usage of revenue code 451 is acceptable when no services beyond an initial
screening/assessment is rendered.
Stand alone
usage of revenue code 452 is not acceptable.
Combining revenue
codes 450, 451, and 452 on the same claim are also not acceptable.
For more information
regarding revenue codes and other billing requirements, hospital providers
can reference the Hospital Manual, Transmittal #738 which is in Section
460.
PROVIDER
MANUALS
The Health Care
Financing Administration (HCFA) manuals provide regulations for the processing
and payment of Medicare claims, preparing reimbursement forms and billing
procedures. As procedures change, HCFA issues updates for the manuals.
It is imperative that providers maintain an updated manual.
Different provider
manuals are available through the National Technical Information Service
(NTIS). Some of these manuals are:
Medicare Coverage
Issues (HCFA Pub. 6)
Medicare CORF/OPT Manual (HCFA Pub. 9)
Medicare Hospital Manual (HCFA Pub. 10)
Medicare Skilled Nursing Facility Manual (HCFA Pub. 12)
Medicare Intermediary Manual (HCFA Pub. 13-3)
Medicare Renal Dialysis Manual (HCFA Pub. 29)
If you would like
to purchase a manual, please call NTIS at 1-800-553-6847. We suggest that
all providers maintain their manual by properly inserting transmittals
when they are issued.
|
PROMOTING
INFLUENZA AND PNEUMOCOCCAL VACCINATIONS
The flu season is here! Please remember to promote influenza and pneumococcal
vaccinations. Both vaccines are Medicare Part B covered preventive health
care benefits. These vaccines greatly reduce hospital admissions for pneumonia
and deaths due to complications from influenza. Research shows that a providers
recommendation is a strong motivator for a patient to get vaccinated.
Standing orders are
one example of an effective strategy that a hospital, public health clinic,
or nursing home can use to increase immunization rates. For example, a
physician could write a standing order in the hospital inpatient setting
requiring the assessment and vaccination of all Medicare patients. A missed
opportunity in the inpatient hospital setting occurs when a beneficiary
is discharged without being offered and receiving an influenza and/or
pneumococcal vaccination. Missed opportunities can often result in a beneficiary
being readmitted to a hospital for influenza and related illnesses, like
pneumonia. Unfortunately, missed vaccination opportunities occur in all
settings. Strategies aimed at modifying systems for delivering care, such
as standing orders, are one way of reducing missed opportunities. Please
note that a standing order is not required for Medicare coverage of influenza
immunizations, but it is required for coverage of pneumococcal vaccinations.
Other strategies are
also effective in reducing missed vaccination opportunities. Physicians
and their office personnel can promote influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations
by hanging posters on the clinic walls to function as reminders for both
the provider and his/her patients, and using wall charts to track immunizations.
Most importantly, physicians can make influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations
available in their office or refer patients to other health care providers
for these vaccinations. Postcards and phone calls to patients to remind
them to get vaccinated are also effective strategies.
The most effective
strategies for increasing influenza and pneumococcal immunizations involve
the health care provider. Simply put, Medicare beneficiaries are most
likely to get immunized when their physician specifically recommends vaccination.
We ask that providers realize their significant roles and discuss and
promote influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations with their patients.
Please remember that while influenza immunizations are seasonal and should
be given every year in the fall, pneumococcal vaccinations can be given
at any time of the year. Generally, one pneumococcal vaccination after
the age of 65 is all that a person needs to protect himself/herself for
a lifetime. However, persons who are considered at highest risk, such
as persons with chronic illnesses, like diabetes, and cardiovascular or
pulmonary disease, and people with compromised immune systems, like chronic
renal failure, should ask their doctor if a booster pneumococcal vaccination
is necessary. If any person 65 and over is unsure of his/her pneumococcal
vaccination status, revaccination is recommended and will be covered by
Medicare Part B.
Your Medicare contractor
can provide you with brochures and posters free-of-charge to display in
your offices to promote both influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations.
To request these materials or for instructions on how to bill Medicare
for influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations, please call your contractor.
Thank you for your
help in bringing this important preventive health care benefit to Medicare
beneficiaries.
|
|
CHANGES
TO HCPCS FOR INFLUENZA VIRUS, PNEUMONIA AND HEPATITIS B VACCINES
The following is
a reprint from the Provider Bulletin dated March 29, 1999. The only change
is adding type of bill 721 for ESRD providers. Please use this as a guide
when billing for the flu, PPV, or hepatitis B vaccines.
The October 1998,
Intermediary News, provided 1998 billing instructions for the pneumococcal
vaccine (PPV) and the influenza virus vaccine (Flu).
The Intermediary Manual,
Section 3660.7 states that effective January 1, 1999, the HCPCS, 90724
for the flu vaccine is deleted and the HCPCS, 90732 for the PPV vaccine
is revised. The billing instructions are also revised but there is a three
month grace period until March 31, 1999 for providers to continue submitting
claims with 90724 and 90732. The revenue code and HCPCS for the administration
remains the same. These new billing instructions supercede all previous
instructions.
Claims received on
or after April 1, 1999, must contain the new flu and PPV HCPCS. The attached
chart will provide the necessary billing information.
When the PPV and flu
vaccines are given to inpatients of a hospital, and the hospital wants
to submit an individual bill for each patient, then the hospital must
submit a bill using bill type 13X. The submitted bill must show the discharge
date of the hospital stay as the date of service to prevent the claim
from editing within the system. However, if the hospital prefers to roster
bill for the inpatients, follow the previous roster billing instructions
and show the actual date of the vaccination as the date of service.
To qualify for roster
billing, immunizations of at least five beneficiaries on the same date
is required. The provider can access the electronic roster billing screen
from the Fiscal Intermediary Standard System (FISS) by first selecting
02 (claims/attachments) and then selecting 87 (roster bill entry). At
the vaccine roster for mass immunizers screen, the provider must enter
the following information: date of service, type of bill, revenue codes,
HCPCS and the charge per each revenue code/HCPC combination.
The following are
defaults that will be used on the claim:
| FLU |
PPV |
|
| Condition
Codes |
A6,
M1, |
same |
|
Patient Status |
01 |
same |
| Payer |
Medicare |
same |
| Diagnosis |
V04.8 |
V03.82 |
It
is important for providers to note that if the provider knows that a particular
group health plan covers the flu and PPV and all other Medicare Secondary
Payer (MSP) requirements for the Medicare beneficiary are met, the primary
payer must be billed.
|
| INFLUENZA
VACCINE |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
|
|
| Provider |
Type of |
Revenue Code/HCPCS |
Revenue Code/HCPCS
|
Principal |
| Type |
Bill |
Administration |
Vaccine |
Diagnosis |
| hospital |
|
771/G0008 |
636-all providers |
V04.8 |
| (inpatient) |
131 |
all providers |
*90657-HCPCS |
|
| hospital |
|
|
|
|
| (outpatient) |
131 |
|
*90658-HCPCS |
|
| SNF (inpatient) |
221 |
|
*90659-HCPCS |
|
| SNF (outpatient) |
231 |
|
|
|
| ESRD |
721 |
|
|
|
| OPT |
741 |
|
|
|
| CORF |
751 |
|
|
|
|
PNEUMOCOCCAL VACCINE
|
|
|
|
| |
|
|
|
|
|
Provider |
Type of |
Revenue Code/HCPCS |
Revenue Code/HCPCS |
Principal |
|
Type |
Bill |
Administration |
Vaccine |
Diagnosis |
| hospital |
|
771/G0009 |
636-all
providers |
V03.82 |
| (inpatient) |
131 |
all providers |
|
|
| hospital |
|
|
*90669-HCPCS |
|
|
(outpatient) |
131 |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
*90732-HCPCS |
|
| SNF (inpatient) |
221 |
|
|
|
| SNF (outpatient) |
231 |
|
|
|
| ESRD |
721 |
|
|
|
| OPT |
741 |
|
|
|
| CORF |
751 |
|
|
|
|
HEPATITIS VACCINE
|
|
|
|
| |
|
|
|
|
|
Provider |
Type of |
Revenue Code/HCPCS |
Revenue Code/HCPCS |
Principal |
|
Type |
Bill |
Administration |
Vaccine |
Diagnosis |
| hospital |
|
771/G0010 |
636-all
providers |
V05.3 |
| (inpatient) |
131 |
all providers |
|
|
| hospital |
|
|
*90744-HCPCS |
|
| (outpatient) |
131 |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
*90745-HCPCS |
|
| SNF (inpatient) |
221 |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
*90746-HCPCS |
|
| SNF (outpatient) |
231 |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
*90747-HCPCS |
|
| ESRD |
721 |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
*90748-HCPCS |
|
| OPT |
741 |
|
|
|
| |
|
|
|
|
| CORF |
751 |
|
|
|
| *90657 |
|
Split
virus 6-35 months dosage, for intramuscular or jet injection use. |
| *90658 |
|
Split
virus, 3 years and above dosage, for intramuscular or injection use. |
| *90659 |
|
Whole
virus, for intramuscular or jet injection use. |
| *90669 |
|
Pneumococcal
conjugate vaccine, polyvalent, for intramuscular use. |
| *90732 |
|
Pneumococcal
polysaccharide vaccine 23-valent, adult dosage, for subcutaneous or |
| |
|
intramuscular
use. |
| *90744 |
|
Hepatitis
B vaccine, pediatric or pediatric/adolescent dosage, for intramuscular use. |
| *90745 |
|
Hepatitis
B vaccine, adolescent/high risk infant dosage, for intramuscular use. |
| *90746 |
|
Hepatitis
B vaccine, adult dosage, for intramuscular use. |
| *90747 |
|
Hepatitis
B vaccine, dialysis or immunosuppressed patient dosage, for intramuscular
use. |
| *90748 |
|
Hepatitis
B and Hemophilus influenza b vaccine (HepB-Hib), for intramuscular use.
|
HOSPITALS
CANNOT CHARGE FOR RECORDS REQUESTED FOR REVIEW
A participating provider is required under Section 405.485 of the Code of
Federal Regulations and Section 1915 of the Social Security Act, to furnish
information the program needs to determine the amount due the provider.
Consequently, in situations where the amount of reimbursement due a provider
is directly affected, the program will not recognize a specific charge by
the provider for furnishing a copy of the medical record. Any costs incurred
by the provider in making this information available to an intermediary
would be recognized as an allowable provider administrative cost and the
program would reimburse its proportionate share of this cost.
Therefore, Maryland
Medicare will not reimburse any provider or company for invoices submitted.
Please remember that failure to submit copies of the requested medical
records will result in denial of the claim.
|
HOW
TO ADJUST OR CANCEL A CLAIM
We have received numerous calls from providers requesting instructions on
how to adjust or cancel a claim.
A paid claim can be
adjusted to add late charges, reduce charges, change a patient status,
correct a revenue code, correct a HCPC, make an MSP correction and for
other reasons.
A claim can be cancelled
when the provider wants the entire payment to be withdrawn.
A claim must be in
a paid status location such as PB9997 in order to request an adjustment
or cancellation of a claim.
The following instructions
are being provided to assist providers with adjustments or cancellations:
1) From the main menu
of the Florida Shared System (FSS), type 03 and enter.
2) From the correction menu to adjustment, select 30 for an inpatient
claim, select 31 for an outpatient claim or select 32 for a SNF claim
and enter. To cancel, select 50, 51or 52 then enter.
3) Enter the beneficiarys Medicare number. Type of bill (TOB) will
default to 11, 13 or 21. If the TOB is other than one of those, then tab
to the TOB field and enter the correct TOB such as a 14, 83, or 22.
4) The claim will appear as long as it is paid. Make the necessary changes
to the claim and type a comment in the remarks field to explain why the
adjustment is being done.
5) Put a claim change reason code in the condition code field. The codes
are D0-E0 and are defined in the following resources: SNF manual, section
560; FSS manual, pg. 367; this issue of the Intermediary News; Hospital
Manual, section 460; and the OPT/CORF Manual, section 416. To cancel a
claim, only D5 or D6 can be used.
6) Put another adjustment or cancellation reason code on page 3 of the
screen. The second code can be found by accessing 01 from the main menu
and then 16 for adjustment reason codes. Or use the schortcut (SC) method
by typing 16 in the SC field located in the upper left hand corner
of the screen. The SC method can be used with any other selections from
the menus. For example, the second code could be CC for charge change
and the condition code on page one be D1 for change to charges.
If an adjustment or cancellation reason code cannot be determined, then
and only then can the OT for other be used. A written remark
must accompany all requests.
7) After making the changes, adding two reason codes, and typing a comment
in the remarks field, then F9 to store the claim. If using PCACE, use
ESC9 to store the claim.
8) Claims correction instructions are also written in the FSS manual beginning
on page 341.
|
ADJUSTMENT/CANCELLATION
REASON CODES
The following are reason codes also referred to as condition codes, to be
used when requesting an adjustment or cancellation. Please refer to the
accompanying article in this Intermediary News for instructions regarding
how to adjust or cancel a claim.
The condition codes
shown here were previously written in the December 1998 Intermediary News.
D0 change to
service dates
D1 change to charges
D2 change to revenue codes/HCPCS
D3 second or subsequent interim PPS bill
D4 change in grouper input
D5 cancel to correct HICN or provider ID
D6 cancel only to repay overpayment
D7 change to make Medicare the secondary payer
D8 change to make Medicare the primary payer
D9 any other change
E0 change in patient status
|
CODING
FOR ADEQUACY OF HEMODIALYSIS
The Hospital Manual, section E422.8; ESRD Manual, section 319.3; and the
Intermediary Manual, section 3644.5 states that all hemodialysis claims
must indicate the most recent Urea Reduction Ratio (URR) for the dialysis
patient. All claims must be coded using HCPCS code 90999 along with the
appropriate G modifier listed below:
G1 Most recent URR
of less than 60%
G2 Most recent URR of 60%-64.9%
G3 Most recent URR of 65%-69.9%
G4 Most recent URR of 70%-74.9%
G5 Most recent URR of 75% or greater
For patients that
have received dialysis six days or less in a month, use the following
modifier:
G6 ESRD patient for
whom less than seven dialysis sessions have been provided in a month
Billing Requirements
Claims
for dialysis treatments must include the adequacy of dialysis data as
measured by URR. Dialysis facilities must monitor the adequacy of dialysis
treatments monthly for facility patients. Home dialysis and peritoneal
dialysis patients may be monitored less frequently, but not less than
quarterly.
HCPCS code 90999 (unlisted
procedure, inpatient or outpatient) must be reported in field location
44 for all bill types 72X. Attach the appropriate G-modifier in field
location 44 (HCPCS/RATES) for patients that received seven or more dialysis
treatments in a month. Continue to report revenue codes 820, 821, 825,
and 829 in field location 43.
The techniques to
be used to draw the pre-and post-dialysis Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) samples
are listed in the National Kidney Foundation Dialysis Outcomes Quality
Initiative Clinical Practice Guidelines for Hemodialysis Adequacy, Guideline
8, Acceptable Methods for BUN sampling, New York, National Kidney Foundation,
1997, pp 53-60.
|
PATIENT
IS A MEMBER OF AN HMO
Where a patient either enrolls or disenrolls in an HMO during a period of
services, two factors determine whether the HMO is liable for the payment:
Whether the
provider is included in PPS, and
The date of the enrollment.
If the patient changes
HMO status during an inpatient hospitalization in a PPS hospital, the
beneficiary status at admission determines liability. If the beneficiary
was enrolled in the HMO before admission, the HMO is responsible regardless
of whether the patient dis-enrolled before discharge. If the beneficiary
was not an HMO enrollee upon admission, later enrolls before discharge,
the HMO is not responsible for payment.
Where the facility
is a non-PPS hospital or unit, SNF, HHA, etc., the HMO is responsible
for payment for services on and after the day of enrollment up through
the day dis-enrollment is effective.
The above information
is in the Intermediary Manual, section 3654.2 and the Hospital Manual,
section 408.
As a reminder, providers are asked to use the HIQA screen to verify a
beneficiarys entitlement and possible HMO enrollment. If an HMO
identification number is present along with an option code, please see
below for a definition of the option codes:
Unrestricted
1 Intermediary to process all Part A & Part B provider bills.
2 HMO to process bill for directly provided services and for services
from providers with effective arrangements. Intermediary
to process all other bills.
Restricted
A Intermediary to process all Part A & Part B provider bills.
B HMO to process bills only for directly provided services.
C HMO to process all bills.
NOTE: Regardless of option, the intermediary will process all bills for
dialysis and related services provided through an approved dialysis facility.
|
SANCTIONED
PROVIDER
UPDATE
|
 |
The Office of
Inspector General(OIG) has advised us of recent administrative sanction
actions involving the following providers: |
Mertine R. Jermany,
M.D.
3448 Ellicott Center Drive
Suite 204
Ellicott City, Maryland 21043
Effective Date: February 18, 1999
Period of Sanction: Indefinite
Abosede Adedapo, R.N.
1471 Hadwick Drive
Baltimore, Maryland 21221
Effective Date: May 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: 5 years
Antonino H. Calon,
M.D.
611 South Union Avenue
Havre de Grace, Maryland 21078-3409
Effective Date: May 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: Indefinite
Gene Patrick Carpenter,
R.N.
7328 Church Hill Road
Chestertown, Maryland 21620
Effective Date: May 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: 10 years
Tonya Walker, R.N.
A/k/a Tonya Walker-Lucas
3416 Brinkley Road
Suite 402
Temple Hills, Maryland 20748
Effective Date: May 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: 5 years
Lois E. Wehren, M.D.
4098 Fragile Sail Way
Ellicott City, Maryland 21042
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Joyce Keel Smith,
R.N.
26 Dowling Circle
Suite T-2
Baltimore, Maryland 21234
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Tammara Smith, R.N.
6466 Roots Drive
Glen Burnie, Maryland 21061
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Silverrene P. Roundtree,
M.D.
106 West Market Street
Snow Hill, Maryland 21863
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Tuoc Kim Nguyen, D.D.S.
8003 Hastings Hunt Court
Severn, Maryland 21144
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Linh Hong Duong, D.D.S.
8003 Hastings Hunt Court
Severn, Maryland 21144
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Pietr Hitzig, M.D.
15 Charles Plaza
Suite 101
Baltimore, Maryland 21201
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Richard W. Holland,
M.D.
1370 Ivywood Lane
Silver Spring, Maryland 20904
Effective Date: June 17, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Craig R. Lane, DPM
C/O 911 North Carey Street
Baltimore, Maryland 21217
Effective Date: July 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Jermany & Associates
Medical Practice
P.O. Box 2505
Baltimore, Maryland 21214-0001
Effective Date: July 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Robert Dawson
Employee (non-govt)
1422 Fernhill Court
Forestville, Maryland 20747
Effective Date: July 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
Elmer E. Cook, D.D.S.
2300 Paper Mill Road
Phoenix, Maryland 21131-1330
Effective Date: July 20, 1999
Period of Sanction: Not provided
An employer of
a sanctioned provider cannot be reimbursed under Medicare or Medicaid
for the salary paid to a sanctioned provider, nor can an employer bill
either program for services rendered to Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries
by this provider. In addition, a provider which hires a sanctioned individual
without making proper inquiries may be subject to Civil Monetary Penalty
Law (CMPL) action by the OIG. Direct questions or inquiries to the Maryland
Medicare Part A Fraud and Abuse Unit at 410-561-4102 or 410- 561-4111.
The OIG has also
informed us of one reinstatement action and one stayed action involving
providers who were previously sanctioned, as follows:
Michael P. Hiotis
Pharmacist
1612 Gray Haven Court
Baltimore, Maryland 21222
Reinstatement Date: June 22, 1999
Vallerie B. Kee, D.D.S.
6328 Towncrest Court
Frederick, Maryland 21703
Stay Date: July 1, 1999
The effect of this
reinstate-ment and stay action is that these providers may now bill the
Medicare and Medicaid programs for items and services supplied to beneficiaries.
Also, an employer of these individuals may now be reimbursed under Medicare
and Medicaid for the salary paid to these providers and may bill the programs
for services rendered to beneficiaries by these providers.
FIGHTING HEALTH
CARE FRAUD IN MARYLAND
The United States Attorneys office for the District of Maryland
has established a Health Care Fraud Hotline, 1-800-377-5879, which can
be used to report suspected fraud in the practice of health care across
the State in the areas of Medicare, Medicaid, CHAMPUS etc.
The United States
Attorney advises that her office is committed to fighting health care
fraud in Maryland. They have prosecuted a number of criminal health care
cases and recovered millions of dollars in civil settlements under the
False Claims Act. They have engaged in prevention efforts, educating health
care providers and beneficiaries about fraudulent schemes etc.
Since 1994, the U.S.
Attorneys Office in Maryland has recovered over $32 million dollars
in fines and damages from health care fraud and abuse.
U. S. Attorney Lynne
A. Battaglia stressed that many of her Offices health care cases
are developed from complaints brought by beneficiaries or persons working
for health care providers who bring the false or fraudulent conduct to
the attention of her office or the health care contractors.
|
|
SANCTIONED
PROVIDERS QUICK REFERENCE
The Department of Health and Human Services, Office
of Inspector General has put a directory of sanctioned providers on the
internet. This list searches by a providers name. The names will
continue to be printed in the Intermediary News. The web address is:
|
 |
|
NEW
WAIVED TESTS
Listed below are the latest tests approved by the Center for Disease
Control as waived tests under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Amendments (CLIA). The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes
for these new tests must have the modifier QW to be recognized as
a waived test. Listed below are the newly added tests.
Bayer Clinitek
50 Urine Chemistry Analyzer - for HCG, urine
Bayer Clinitek
50 Urine Chemistry Analyzer - for microalbumin, creatinine
Bayer DCA 2000+
- glycosylated hemoglobin (Hgb A1c)
GDS Diagnostics
HemoSite Meter - for hemoglobin
ActiMed Laboratories
ENA.C.T. Total Cholesterol Test (PDU)
Genzyme Contrast
Strep A (direct from throat swab)
A new waived
CPT code, 84703QW, was assigned for the hCG urine test performed
on the Bayer Clinitek 50 Urine Chemistry Analyzer.
|
| TEST
NAME |
MANUFACTURER |
CPT
CODE(S) |
USE |
|
Dipstick or tablet reagent urinalysis -
non-automated for bilirubin, glucose,
hemoglobin, ketone, leukocytes,
nitrite, pH, protein, specific gravity,
and urobilinogen |
Various |
81002 |
Screening of urine to monitor/diagnose
various diseases/conditions, such as
diabetes,the state of the kidney, or
urinary tract, and urinary tract
infections.
|
| |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Fecal occult blood |
Various |
82270 G0107
(contact your
Medicare carrier
for payment
instructions) |
Detection of blood in feces from
whatever cause, benign or malignant
(colorectal cancer screening).
|
|
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|
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|
Ovulation tests by visual color
comparison for human luteinizing
hormone |
Various |
84830 |
Detection of ovulation
(optimal for conception).
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Urine pregnancy tests by visual
color comparison |
Various |
81025 |
Diagnosis of pregnancy.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate -
non-automated |
Various |
85651 |
Nonspecific screening test for
inflammatory activity, increased for
majority of infections, and most cases
of carcinoma and leukemia.
|
|
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|
|
|
|
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|
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|
Hemoglobin by copper sulfate -
non-automated |
Various |
83026 |
Monitors hemoglobin level in blood.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Blood glucose by glucose monitoring
devices cleared by the FDA for home use |
Various |
82962 |
Monitoring of blood glucose levels.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Blood count; spun microhematocrit |
Various |
85013 |
Screen for anemia.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Hemoglobin by single instrument with
self-contained or component features to
perform specimen/reagent interaction,
providing direct measurement
and readout |
HemoCue |
85018QW
(effective 10/1/96) |
Monitors hemoglobin level in blood
(HCPCS code Q0116 should be
discontinued for this test 9/30/96)
|
|
|
|
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|
HemoCue B-Glucose Photometer |
HemoCue |
82947QW,
82950QW,
82951QW,
82952QW
(effective
10/1/96) |
Diagnosis and monitoring of blood
Glucose levels (HCPCS codes G0055,
G0056, and G0057 should be
discontinued for this test 9/30/96).
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|
ChemTrak AccuMeter |
ChemTrak |
82465QW |
Cholesterol monitoring.
|
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|
|
Advanced Care |
Johnson &
Johnson |
82465QW |
Cholesterol monitoring.
|
|
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|
|
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|
|
Boehringer Mannheim
Chemstrip Micral |
Boehringer
Mannheim |
82044QW |
Monitors low concentrations of
Albumin in urine which is helpful for
early detection in patients at risk for
renal disease.
|
| |
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|
Cholestech LDX |
Cholestech |
82465QW,
83718QW,
84478QW,
82947QW,
82950QW,
82951QW,
82952QW,
80061QW |
Measures total cholesterol, HDL
Cholesterol, triglycerides, and
Glucose levels in whole blood.
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|
Serim Pyloritek Test Kit |
Serim |
87072QW |
Presumptive identification of
Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsy
tissue, which has been shown
to cause chronic active gastritis
(ulcers).
|
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|
QuickVue In-Line
One-Step Strep A Test |
Quidel |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal
(GAS) antigen from throat swabs
and used as an aid in the diagnosis of
GAS infection, which typically causes
strep throat, tonsillitis, and
scarlet fever.
|
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|
Boehringer Mannheim
Accu-Chek InstantPlus
Cholesterol |
Boehringer
Mannheim |
82465QW |
Cholesterol monitoring.
|
| |
|
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|
|
All qualitative color
comparison pH testing - body
fluids (other than blood) |
Various |
83986QW |
pH detection (acid-base balance) in
body fluids such as semen, amniotic
fluid, and gastric aspirates.
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|
SmithKline Gastroccult |
SmithKline |
82273QW |
Rapid screening test to detect the
Presence of gastric occult blood.
|
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|
QuickVue One-Step H. Pylori
Test for Whole Blood |
Quidel |
86318QW |
Immunoassay for rapid, qualitative
Detection of IgG antibodies specific to
Helicobacter pylori in whole blood.
|
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|
Binax NOW Strep A Test |
Binax |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal
(GAS) antigen from throat swabs and
used as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS
infection which typically causes
strep throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
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|
Delta West CLOtest |
Delta West
Tri-Med Specialties |
87072QW |
Presumptive identification of
Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsy
tissue, which has been shown to cause
chronic active gastritis (ulcers).
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|
Wampole STAT-CRIT Hct |
Wampole
Laboratories |
85014QW |
Screen for anemia.
|
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|
SmithKline Diagnostics
FlexSure HP Test for IgG
Antibodies to H. pylori in
Whole Blood |
SmithKline
Diagnostics, Inc. |
86318QW |
Immunoassay for rapid, qualitative
detection of IgG antibodies specific to Helicobacter
pylori in whole blood.
|
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|
Wyntek Diagnostics OSOM
Strep A Test |
Wyntek
Diagnostics,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects GroupA streptococcal (GAS)
antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep
throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
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GI Supply HP-FAST |
Mycoscience
Labs, Inc. |
87072QW |
Presumptive identification of
Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsy tissue,
which has been shown to
cause chronic active gastritis (ulcers).
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Abbott FlexPak HP Test for
whole blood |
Abbott Laboratories |
86318QW |
Immunoassay for rapid, qualitative
detection of IgG antibodies specific to Helicobacter
pylori in whole blood.
|
| |
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|
Chemtrak AccuMeter
H. pylori Test (for whole blood) |
ChemTrak |
Pending |
Immunoassay for rapid, qualitative
detection of IgG antibodies specific to Helicobacter
pylori in whole blood.
|
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BioStar Acceava Strep A Test
(direct specimen only) |
Wyntek Diagnostics,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal (GAS)
antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep
throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
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LXN Fructosamine
Test System |
LXN Corporation |
82985QW |
Used to evaluate diabetic control,
reflecting diabetic control over a 2-3 week
period. Not a useful test for screening
diabetes mellitus.
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ITC Protime Microcoagulation
System for Prothrombin Time |
International
Technidyne
Corporation
(ITC) |
85610QW
(contact your
Medicare carrier
for claims
instructions) |
Aid in screening for congenital
deficiencies of Factors II, V, VII, X; screen
for deficiency of prothrombin; evaluate
heparin effect, coumadin or warfarin
effect; screen for Vitamin K deficiency.
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CoaguChek PST for
Prothrombin Time |
Boehringer
Mannheim
Corporation |
85610QW
(contact your
Medicare carrier
for claims
instructions) |
Aid in screening for congenital
deficiencies of factors II, V, VII, X;
screen for deficiency of prothrombin;
evaluate heparin effect, coumadin or
warfarin effect; screen for vitamin K
deficiency.
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SmithKline ICON Fx Strep A
Test (from throat swab only) |
Binax |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal
(GAS) antigen from throat swabs and
used as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS
infection which typically causes strep
throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
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Abbott Signify Strep A Test
(from throat swab only) |
Wyntek Diagnostics,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal
(GAS) antigen from throat swabs and
used as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS
infection which typically causes strep
throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
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Bayer Clinitek 50 Urine
Chemistry Analyzer -
qualitative dipstick for glucose,
bilirubin, ketone, specific
gravity, blood, pH, protein,
urobilinogen, nitrite,
leukocytes - automated |
Bayer |
81003QW |
Screening of urine to monitor/diagnose
various diseases/conditions, such as
diabetes, the state of the kidney or
urinary tract, and urinary tract
infections.
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|
Bayer DCA 2000 -
glycosylated hemoglobin
(Hgb A1c) |
Bayer |
83036QW |
Measures the percent concentration
of hemoglobin A1c in blood, which is
used in monitoring the long-term care
of people with diabetes.
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Wampole Mono-Plus WB |
Wampole
Laboratories |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the
presence of heterophile antibodies in
human whole blood, which is used as
an aid in the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis.
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LXN Duet Glucose Control
Monitoring System |
LXN Corporation |
82962 82985QW |
Monitoring of blood glucose levels
and measures fructosamine which is
used to evaluate diabetic control,
reflecting diabetic control over a 2-3
week period.
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ENA.C.T Total
Cholesterol Test |
ActiMed
Laboratories,
Inc. |
82465QW |
Cholesterol monitoring.
|
| |
|
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|
Genzyme Contrast Mono
(whole blood) |
Genzyme
Diagnostics |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the
presence of heterophile antibodies in
human whole blood, which is used
as an aid in the diagnosis of
infectious mononucleosis.
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Applied Biotech SureStep
Strep A (II) (direct from throat
swab) |
Applied
Biotech,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal
(GAS) antigen from throat swabs and
used as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS
infection which typically causes strep
throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
| |
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STC Diagnostics Q.E.D. A150
Saliva Alcohol Test |
STC Technologies
Inc. |
Pending |
Qualitative determination of alcohol
(ethanol) in saliva.
|
| |
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STC Diagnostics Q.E.D. A350
Saliva Alcohol Test |
STC Technologies
Inc. |
Pending |
Qualitative determination of alcohol
(ethanol) in saliva.
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Micro Diagnostics Spuncrit
Model DRC-40 Infrared
Analyzer for hematocrit |
Micro Diagnostics
Corporation |
Pending |
Screen for anemia.
|
| |
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| |
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|
|
Chemstrip Mini UA -
qualitative dipstick for glucose,
bilirubin, ketone, specific gravity, blood,
pH, protein, urobilinogen, nitrite,
leukocytes - automated |
Boehringer
Mannheim
Corporation |
81003QW |
Screening of urine to monitor/diagnose
various diseases/conditions, such as
diabetes, the state of the kidney or
urinary tract, and urinary tract infections.
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| |
| |
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|
Litmus Concepts FemExam
TestCard (from vaginal swab) |
Litmus Concepts,
Inc. |
84999QW |
Qualitative test of a vaginal fluid sample
for Elevated pH (pH greater than or
equal to 4.7) and the presence of
volatile amines.
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|
Wyntek Diagnostics OSOM
Mono Test (whole blood) |
Wyntek Diagnostics,
Inc. |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the
presence of Heterophile antibodies
in human whole blood, which is
used as an aid in the diagnosis of
infectious mononucleosis.
|
| |
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|
Meridian Diagnostics
ImmunoCard STAT Strep A
(direct from throat swab) |
Applied
Biotech,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal (GAS)
Antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep throat,
tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
| |
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|
|
Seradyn Color Q Mono
(whole blood) |
Genzyme
Diagnostics |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the
presence of heterophile antibodies
in human whole blood, which is used
as an aid in the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis.
|
| |
|
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|
Jant Pharmacal AccuStrip
Strep A (II) (direct from throat
swab) |
Applied
Biotech,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal (GAS)
Antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep throat,
tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
| |
|
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|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
BioStar Acceava Mono Test
(whole blood) |
Wyntek Diagnostics,
Inc. |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the presence of heterophile
antibodies in human whole blood,
which is used as an aid in the diagnosis
of infectious mononucleosis.
|
| |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
LifeSign UniStep Mono Test
(whole blood) |
Princeton
BioMeditech
Corp. |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the
presence of heterophile antibodies in
human whole blood, which is used as
mononucleosis.
|
| |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Becton Dickinson LINK 2
Strep A Rapid Test (direct
from throat swab) |
Applied
Biotech, Inc |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal (GAS)
antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep throat,
tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
|
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|
|
DynaGen NicCheck I Test Strips |
Dynagen, Inc. |
80101QW
(This test may
not be covered
in all instances.
Contact your
Medicare carrier.) |
Detects nicotine and/or its metabolites in
urine, which is used as an aid in indicating
the smoking status of an individual
and as an aid in the identification
of a smoker as a low
or high nicotine consumer.
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|
|
Mainline Confirms Strep A
Dots Test (direct from throat
swab) |
Applied
Biotech,
Inc. |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal (GAS)
antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep throat,
tonsillitis, and scarlet fever.
|
| |
| |
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|
|
|
|
|
Quidel Cards O.S. Mono (for
whole blood) |
Quidel Corporation |
86308QW |
Qualitative screening test for the
presence of heterophile antibodies in
human whole blood, which is used as
an aid in the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis.
|
| |
|
|
|
|
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|
|
*Bayer Clinitek 50 Urine
Chemistry Analyzer -
for HCG, urine |
Bayer Corp |
84703QW |
Diagnosis of pregnancy.
|
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|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
*Bayer Clinitek 50 Urine
Chemistry Analyzer - |
Bayer Corp. |
82044QW |
Detection of patients at risk for
developing kidney damage.
for microalbumin, creatinine
|
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|
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|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
*Bayer DCA 2000+ -
glycosylated hemoglobin
(Hgb A1c) |
Bayer Corp. |
83036QW |
Measures the percent concentration of
hemoglobin A1c in blood, which is
used in monitoring the long-term care
of people with diabetes.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
*GDS Diagnostics HemoSite
Meter - for hemoglobin |
GDS Technology,
Inc. |
85018QW |
Measures hemoglobin level in
whole blood.
|
| |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
*ActiMed Laboratories
ENA.C.T. Total Cholesterol
Test (PDU) |
ActiMed
Laboratories,
Inc. |
82465QW
(Contact your
Medicare carrier
for claims
instructions) |
Cholesterol monitoring.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
*Genzyme Contrast Strep A
(direct from throat swab) |
Genzyme
Diagnostics |
86588QW |
Rapidly detects Group A streptococcal (GAS)
antigen from throat swabs and used
as an aid in the diagnosis of GAS infection
which typically causes strep throat,
tonsillitis and scarlet fever.
|
| |
|
|
|
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|
|
* Newly-added waived test system
|
|
|
|
PANCREAS
TRANSPLANTS
Pancreas transplantation is performed to induce an insulin independent,
euglycemic state in diabetic patients. The procedure is generally limited
to those patients with severe secondary complications of diabetes, including
kidney failure. However, pancreas transplantation is sometimes performed
on patients with labile diabetes and hypoglycemic unawareness.
Medicare has had a
policy of not covering pancreas transplantation for many years as the
safety and effectiveness of the procedure had not been demonstrated. The
Office of Health Technology Assessment performed an assessment on pancreas
kidney transplantation in 1994. They found reasonable graft survival outcomes
for patients receiving either simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplantation
or pancreas after kidney transplantation.
Per the Coverage Issues
Manual, section 35-82, and Program Memorandum A-99-16, effective July
1, 1999, Medicare will cover whole organ pancreas transplantation (ICD-9
CM procedure code 52.80 or 52.83, HCPC 48554) only when it is performed
simultaneously with or after a Medicare covered kidney transplant (ICD-9
procedure code 55.69, HCPC 50360 or 50365).
There are no special
provisions related to managed care participants. Managed care plans are
required to provide all Medicare covered services.
Medicare does not
restrict which hospitals or physicians may perform pancreas transplantation.
Hospital Billing
Instructions
Revenue Codes/ICD-9
CM Procedure Codes
Revenue Code 360-Operating
Room Services
Revenue Code 81X
Organ Acquisition (X=1-4)
Acquisition cost will be in this revenue center for pancreas and kidney
transplants. The intermediary will override any claims suspended due
to repetition of revenue code 81X on the same claim. The intermediary
will pay for both kidney and pancreas organs. The intermediary will
not pay for more than two organ acquisitions on a single claim.
The transplant
procedure and revenue code for the operating room are paid under these
codes. Procedures must be reported using the current ICD-9- CM procedure
codes for pancreas and kidney transplants. Providers must place at least
one of the following transplant procedure codes on the claim:
52.80-transplant
of pancreas (with date of procedure)
52.83-heterotransplant of pancreas (with date of procedure)
HCPCS Code
48554-transplantation
of pancreatic allograft
Conditions
of Coverage/ICD-9 CM Diagnosis Codes
One or more of
the following diagnosis codes must be present:
250.00-diabetes
mellitus without mention of complication, type II (non-insulin dependent)
(NIDDM) (adult onset) or unspecified type, not stated as uncontrolled.
250.01-diabetes
mellitus without mention of complication, type I (insulin dependent)
(IDDM) (juvenile), not stated as uncontrolled.
250.02-diabetes
mellitus without mention of complication, type II (non-insulin dependent)
(NDDM) (adult onset) or unspecified type, uncontrolled.
250.03-diabetes
mellitus without mention of complication, type I (insulin dependent)
(IDDM) (juvenile), uncontrolled.
*NOTE: X=0-3
*250.1X-diabetes with ketoacidosis
*250.2X-diabetes with hyperosmolarity
*250.3X-diabetes with coma *250.4X-diabetes with renal manifestations
*250.5X-diabetes with opthalmic manifestations
*250.6X-diabtes with neurological manifestations
*250.7X-diabets with peripheral circulatory disorders
*250.8X-diabetes with other specified manifestations
*250.9X-diabetes with unspecified complication
Also include ICD-9-CM
diagnosis code 585, chronic renal failure, unless one of the following
codes is present:
V42.0 organ
or tissue replaced by transplant kidney
V43.89 organ tissue replaced by other means, kidney or pancreas
If the pancreas transplant occurs after the kidney transplant, the 36
month period of entitlement to immunosuppressive therapy will begin with
the date of discharge from the stay for pancreas transplant.
The Common Working
File (CWF) will edit to ensure that a claim for kidney transplant (ICD-9-CM
procedure code 55.69) has been received prior to pancreas transplantation.
Pancreas transplantation
for diabetic patients who have not experienced end stage renal failure
secondary to diabetes continues to be excluded from Medicare coverage.
Medicare also excludes coverage of transplantation of partial pancreatic
tissue or islet cells. There is not sufficient evidence at this time to
support a determination that these procedures are reasonable and necessary.
|
IMPLANTATION
OF AUTOMATIC DEFIBRILLATORS
The implantable automatic defibrillator is an electronic device designed
to detect and treat life-threatening tachyarrhythmias. The device consists
of a pulse generator and electrodes for sensing and defibrillating. Effective
for services performed on or after January 24, 1986 through July 1, 1991,
the implantation of an automatic defibrillator (ICD-9 -CM codes 37.94-37.96
or HCPC code 33246) is a covered service only when used as a treatment of
last resort for patients who have had a documented episode of life-threatening
ventricular tachyarrhythmia or cardiac arrest not associated with myocardial
infarction. Patients must also be found, by electrophysiologic testing,
to have an inducible tachyarrhythmia that proves unresponsive to medication
or surgical therapy (or be considered unsuitable candidates for surgical
therapy). It must be emphasized that unless all of the above described conditions
and stipulations are met in a particular case, including the inducibility
of tachyarrhythmia, etc., implantation of an automatic defibrillator may
not be covered.
Effective for services
performed on or after July 1, 1991, the implantation of an automatic defibrillator
is a covered service for patients who have had a documented episode of
life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmia or cardiac arrest not associated
with myocardial infarction.
Effective for services
performed on or after July 1, 1999, the implantation of an automatic defibrillator
is also a covered service for patients with the following conditions:
* A documented episode
of cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation not due to a transient
or reversible cause;
* Ventricular tachyarrhythmia,
either spontaneous or induced, not due to a transient or reversible cause;
or,
* Familial or inherited
conditions with a high risk of life-threatening ventricular tachyarrythmias
such as long QT syndrome or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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SCREENING
PAP SMEARS
Section 3628.1 of the Intermediary Manual and, section 437.1 of the Hospital
Manual, Screening Pap Smears and Screening Pelvic Examinations, incorporates
and corrects instructions released in Program Memorandum A-98-6, Change
Request 432, dated March 1998, to provide billing and payment instructions
for claims with dates of service on or after January 1, 1998. The following
corrections have been made:
HCPCS coding
only reported by physicians has not been included;
Reference to
payment under the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule for pelvic examinations
has been corrected to payment on a reasonable cost basis.
In addition, the following
information has been included:
Revenue code
770 Preventive Care Services - General Classification has
been added as the appropriate revenue code to bill for screening pelvic
examinations; and
New HCPCS codes
G0123, G0143, G0144, G0145, G0147, and G0l48 have been added
for billing of screening Pap smears.
Screening Pap Smears
and Screening Pelvic Examinations
A. Screening Pap SmearSection
4102 of the Balanced Budget Act (BBA) of 1997 (P.L. 105-33) amends ß1861
(nn) of the Social Security Act (the Act) (42 USC 1395X(nn) to include
coverage every 3 years for a screening Pap smear or more frequent coverage
for women (1) at high risk for cervical or vaginal cancer, or (2) of childbearing
age who have had a Pap smear during any of the preceding 3 years indicating
the presence of cervical or vaginal cancer or other abnormality.
1. CoverageScreening
Pap smears are covered when ordered and collected by a doctor of medicine
or osteopathy (as defined in ß1861(r)(l) of the Act), or other authorized
practitioner (e.g., a certified nurse midwife, physician assistant, nurse
practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist, who is authorized under State
law to perform the examination) under one of the following conditions:
The beneficiary
has not had a screening Pap smear test during the preceding 3 years (use
ICD-9-CM code V76.2, special screening for malignant neoplasm, cervix);
or
There is evidence
(on the basis of her medical history or other findings) that she is of
childbearing age and has had an examination that indicated the presence
of cervical or vaginal cancer or other abnormalities during any of the
preceding 3 years; or that she is at high risk of developing cervical
or vaginal cancer (use ICD-9-CM code V15.89, other specified personal
history presenting hazards to health). The high risk factors for cervical
and vaginal cancer are:
Cervical Cancer
High Risk Factors:
- Early onset of
sexual activity (under 16 years of
age);
- Multiple sexual
partners (five or more in a life time);
- History of a
sexually transmitted disease (including
HIV infection); and
- Fewer than three
negative Pap smears within the
previous 7 years.
- Vaginal Cancer
High Risk Factors:
- DES (diethylstilbestrol)
- exposed daughters of
women who took DES during pregnancy.
The term woman
of childbearing age means a woman who is premenopausal, and has
been determined by a physician, or qualified practitioner, to be of childbearing
age, based on her medical history or other findings. Payment is not made
for a screening Pap smear for women at high risk or who qualify for coverage
under the childbearing provision more frequently than once every 11 months
after the month that the last screening Pap smear covered by Medicare
was performed.
2. HCPCS CodingThe
following HCPCS codes are used for screening Pap smears:
P3000Screening
papanicolaou smear, cervical or vaginal, up to three smears, by a technician
under the physician supervision.
G0123Screening
cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in
preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, evaluation by cytotechnologist
under physician supervision.
G0143Screening
cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in
preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, with manual evaluation
and reevaluation by cytotechnologist under physician supervision.
G0144Screening
cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in
preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, with manual evaluation
and computer-assisted reevaluation by cytotechnologist under physician
supervision.
G0145Screening
cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in
preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, with manual evaluation
and computer-assisted reevaluation using cell selection and review under
physician supervision
G0147Screening
cytopathology smears, cervical or vaginal, performed by automated system
under physician supervision.
G0148Screening
cytopathology smears, cervical or vaginal, performed by automated system
with manual reevaluation.
3. PaymentScreening
Pap smears are paid under the clinical diagnostic laboratory fee schedule.
Deductible and coinsurance do not apply.
4. Billing RequirementsThe
applicable bill types for screening Pap smears are 13X (hospital outpatient),
14X (hospital other, diagnostic clinical laboratory services to nonpatients),
23X (SNF outpatient), 24X (SNF other), or 71X (Rural Health Clinic). The
applicable revenue code is 311.
B. Screening Pelvic
ExaminationsSection 4102 of the BBA of 1997 (P.L. 105-33) amends
ß1861 (nn) of the Act (42 USC 1395X(nn)) to include coverage of
a screening pelvic examination for all female beneficiaries, effective
January 1, 1998. A screening pelvic examination should include at least
7 of the following 11 elements:
Inspection
and palpation of breasts for masses or lumps, tenderness, symmetry,
or nipple discharge;
Digital
rectal examination including sphincter tone, presence of hemorrhoids,
and rectal masses;
Pelvic examination
(with or without specimen collection for smears and culture) including:
External
genitalia (for example, general appearance, hair distribution, or lesions);
Urethral
(for example, masses, tenderness, or scarring);
Bladder
(for example, fullness, masses, or tenderness);
Vagina (for
example, general appearance, estrogen effect, discharge, lesions, pelvic
support, cystocele, or rectocele);
Cervix (for
example, general appearance, lesions or discharge);
Uterus (for
example, size, contour, position, mobility, tenderness, consistency,
descent, or support);
Adnexa/parametria
(for example, masses, tenderness, organomegaly, or nodularity); and
Anus and
perineum.
1. CoverageMedicare
Part B pays for a screening pelvic examination if it is performed by a
doctor of medicine or osteopathy (as defined in ß1861(r)(1) of the
Act), or by a certified nurse midwife (as defined in ß1861 (gg)
of the Act), or a physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical
nurse specialist (as defined in ß1861 (aa) of the Act) who is authorized
under State law to perform the examination. This examination does not
have to be ordered by a physician or other authorized practitioner.
Payment may
be made for a screening pelvic examination performed on an asymptomatic
woman only if the individual has not had a screening pelvic examination
paid for by Medicare during the preceding 35 months following the month
in which the last Medicare covered screening pelvic examination was performed
(use ICD-9-CM code V76.2, special screening for malignant neoplasm, cervix)
except as follows:
Payment may
be made for a screening pelvic examination performed more frequently than
once every 36 months if the test is performed by a physician or other
practitioner and there is evidence that the woman is at high risk (on
the basis of her medical history or other findings) of developing cervical
cancer, or vaginal cancer. (Use ICD-9-CM code V15.89, other specified
personal history presenting hazards to health.) The high risk factors
for cervical and vaginal cancer are:
Cervical Cancer
High Risk Factors:
- Early onset of
sexual activity (under 16 years of age);
- Multiple sexual
partners (five or more in a lifetime);
- History of a sexually transmitted disease (including HIV infection);
and
- Fewer than three
negative Pap smears within the previous 7 years.
Vaginal Cancer
High Risk Factors:
- DES (diethylstilbestrol)
- exposed daughters of women who took DES during pregnancy.
Payment may
also be made for a screening pelvic examination performed more frequently
than once every 36 months if the examination is performed by a physician
or other practitioner, for a woman of childbearing age, who has had such
an examination that indicated the presence of cervical or vaginal cancer
or other abnormality during any of the preceding 3 years. The term women
of childbearing age means a woman who is premenopausal, and has
been determined by a physician, or qualified practitioner, to be of childbearing
age, based on her medical history or other findings. Payment is not made
for a screening pelvic examination for women at high risk or who qualify
for coverage under the childbearing provision more frequently than once
every 11 months after the month that the last screening pelvic examination
covered by Medicare was performed.
2. HCPCS CodingThe following HCPCS code is used for screening pelvic
examinations:
G0101Cervical
or vaginal cancer screening pelvic and clinical breast examination.
3. PaymentScreening
pelvic examinations are paid on a reasonable cost basis. The Part B
deductible for screening pelvic examinations is waived effective January
1, 1998. Coinsurance applies.
4. Billing RequirementsThe
applicable bill types for screening pelvic examination (including breast
examination) are 13X (hospital outpatient, 14X (hospital other, diagnostic
clinical laboratory services to nonpatients), 23X (SNF outpatient),
24X (SNF other), or 71X (Rural Health Clinic). The applicable revenue
code is 770.
C. Screening Pap
Smears and Screening Pelvic Examinations
1. CWF EditsCWF
will edit for screening Pap smear and/or screening pelvic examination
performed more than once in 3 years and high risk factors are not present.
2. Medicare Summary
Notices (MSN) and Explanation of Your Medicare Benefits (EOMB) Messages-(This
is for the beneficiary)-If a screening Pap smear and/or screening pelvic
examination is being denied because the procedure/examination is performed
more than once in 3 years and no high risk factors are present, the following
MSN or EOMB message will be used:
Medicare pays
for screening Pap smear and/or screening pelvic examination only once
every 3 years unless high risk factors are present. (MSN Message
18-17, EOMB Message 18.26.)
3. Remittance Advice
Notices(This is for the provider)-If the screening Pap smear and/or
screening pelvic examination is being denied because the procedure/examination
is performed more than once in 3 years and no high risk factors are present,
use existing American National Standard Institute (ANSI) X12-835 claim
adjustment reason code 119, Benefit maximum for this time period
has been reached at the line level, along with line level remark
code M83, service is not covered unless the beneficiary is classified
as at high risk.
|
|
HOLIDAY
SCHEDULE
The Medicare office
will be closed for the following holidays in 1999:
Thanksgiving
Thursday, November 25, 1999 and Friday, November
26, 1999
Christmas Friday,
December 24, 1999 and Monday, December 27, 1999
New Years
Thursday, December 30,
1999 closing at 11:30 a.m. and closed all day on
Friday,
December 31, 1999
|
TYPE
OF BILL 22X OR 23X When Do I Bill?
For services rendered
prior to the PPS effective date, the provider should bill a Type of Bill
(TOB) 23X when a patient is still in the skilled nursing facility but is
considered non-skilled or if the patient is not a resident. A TOB 22X should
be used when the inpatient benefits have been exhausted.
For services rendered
after the PPS effective date, the provider should bill a TOB 23X whenever
the patient is a non resident of the skilled nursing facility. This means
that the patient does not reside in the facility. A 22X TOB should be
used when the patient is a resident of the facility and inpatient benefits
are exhausted, the level of care changes to non-skilled care or if the
patient was never skilled.
Providers should not
bill a TOB 23X and a TOB 22X for the same dates of service or overlapping
dates of service.
|
POSITRON
EMISSION TOMOGRAPHY
The Coverage Issues Manual, section 50-36 , and Program Memorandum, A-99-14,
state effective July 1, 1999, Medicare will expand coverage of Positron
Emission Tomography (PET) scans to include the evaluation of recurrent colorectal
cancer in patients with rising levels of carinoembryonic antigen (CEA),
for the staging of lymphoma (both Hodgins and non-Hodgins) when the PET
scan substitutes for a gallium scan or lymphangiogram, and for the staging
of recurrent melanoma prior to surgery, provided certain conditions are
met. All three indications are covered only when using the radiopharmaceutical
FDA (2-[flourine-18]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose), and are further predicated
on the legal availability of FDG for use in such scans. All other uses of
PET scans remain not covered by Medicare.
There are three new
HCPCS codes for PET scans when performed on or after July 1, 1999. The
new HCPCS codes are:
G0163Positron
Emission Tomography (PET), whole body, for recurrence of colorectal
or colorectal metastatic cancer.
G0164Positron
Emission Tomography (PET), whole body, for staging and characterization
of lymphoma.
G0165
Positron Emission Tomography (PET), whole body, for recurrence of melanoma
or melanoma metastic cancer.
These codes represent
the technical component costs associated with these procedures when furnished
to hospital outpatients (bill type 13X) and are payable on a reasonable
cost basis. They are reported with revenue code 404 (Positron Emission
Tomography).
Hospitals can bill
for the above PET scans performed on or after July 1, 1999, provided all
the terms and conditions set forth in the coverage guidelines for PET
are met. The above new G codes will be added to the outpatient
code editor effective July 1, 1999.
Postpayment Review
As with any claim,
but particularly in view of the limitations on this coverage, Medicare
may decide to conduct post-payment reviews to determine that the use of
PET scans is consistent with coverage instructions. Positron Emission
Tomography scan facilities must keep patient record information on file
for each Medicare patient for whom a PET scan claim is made. These medical
records will be used in any post-payment reviews and must include the
information necessary to substantiate the need for the PET scan. These
records must include standard information (e.g., age, sex, and height)
along with sufficient patient histories to allow determination that the
steps required in the coverage instructions were followed. Such information
must include, but is not limited to, the date, place and results of previous
diagnostic tests (e.g., cytopathology and surgical pathology reports,
CT, etc.), as well as the results and reports of the PET scan(s) performed
at the center. If available, such records should include the prognosis
derived from the PET scan, together with information regarding the physician
or institution to which the patient proceeded following the scan for treatment
or evaluation. The ordering physician is responsible for forwarding appropriate
clinical data to the PET scan facility.
|
PROSTATE
CANCER SCREENING TESTS— COVERED
General Section 4103 of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 provides for
coverage of certain prostate cancer screening tests subject to certain coverage,
frequency, and payment limitations. Effective for services furnished on
or after January 1, 2000, Medicare will cover prostate cancer screening
tests/procedures for the early detection of prostate cancer. Coverage of
prostate cancer screening tests includes the following procedures furnished
to an individual for the early detection of prostate cancer:
Screening
digital rectal examination; and
Screening prostate specific antigen blood test.
Screening Digital
Rectal Examinations Screening digital rectal examinations (HCPCS
code G0102) are covered at a frequency of once every 12 months for men
who have attained age 50 (at least 11 months have passed following the
month in which the last Medicare-covered screening digital rectal examination
was performed). Screening digital rectal examination means a clinical
examination of an individuals prostate for nodules or other abnormalities
of the prostate. This screening must be performed by a doctor of medicine
or osteopathy (as defined in ß1861(r)(1) of the Act), or by a physician
assistant, nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or certified
nurse midwife (as defined in ß1861(aa) and ß1861(gg) of the
Act) who is authorized under State law to perform the examination, fully
knowledgeable about the beneficiarys medical condition, and would
be responsible for using the results of any examination performed in the
overall management of the beneficiarys specific medical problem.
Screening Prostate
Specific Antigen Tests Screening prostate specific antigen tests
(code G0103) are covered at a frequency of once every 12 months for men
who have attained age 50 (at least 11 months have passed following the
month in which the last Medicare-covered screening prostate specific antigen
test was performed). Screening prostate specific antigen tests (PSA) means
a test to detect the marker for adenocarcinoma of prostate. Prostate specific
antigen test is a reliable immunocytochemical marker for primary and metastatic
adenocarcinoma of prostate. This screening must be ordered by the beneficiarys
physician or by the beneficiarys physician assistant, nurse practitioner,
clinical nurse specialist, or certified nurse midwife (the term attending
physician is defined in ß1861(r)(1) of the Act to mean a doctor
of medicine or osteopathy and the terms physician assistant, nurse
practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or certified nurse midwife
are defined in ß1861(aa) and ß1861(gg) of the Act) who is
fully knowledgeable about the beneficiarys medical condition, and
who would be responsible for using the results of any examination (test)
performed in the overall management of the beneficiarys specific
medical problem.
|
|
MAGNETIC
RESONANCE ANGIOGRAPHY
Section 1861(s)(2)(C) of the Social Security Act provides for coverage
of diagnostic testing. Effective for claims with dates of service on or
after July 1, 1999, Medicare provides limited coverage for Magnetic Resonance
Angiography (MRA) of the abdomen and chest as described in the Medicare
Coverage Issues Manual, ß50-14, “Magnetic Resonance Angiography”. Coverage
is provided only under the medical indications set forth in that instruction
for MRA. Previously, MRA of peripheral vessels of the lower extremities
and of the head and neck had been covered. Those coverages continue in
effect. Magnetic Resonance Angiography is covered for these diagnostic
applications only as a substitute for contrast angiography, except when
it is medically necessary to do both tests. All other uses of MRA are
not covered. These instructions apply to all covered uses of MRA.
Billing Requirements
Follow
the general bill review instructions in Section 3604 of the Medicare Intermediary
Manual, Part 3 or Section 460 of the Hospital Manual. The provider bills
on Form HCFA-1450 (UB92) or the electronic equivalent.
Applicable Bill
Types
The
appropriate bill types are 12X, 13X, 14X, 22X, 23X, 34X, 71X (Provider-based
and independent), 72X, 73X (Provider-based and freestanding), 83X and
85X.
Providers utilizing
the UB-92 flat file use record type 40 to report the bill type. Record
type (Field
No. 1), Sequence Number (Field No. 2), Patient Control Number (Field No.
3), and Type of Bill (field No. 4) are required.
Providers utilizing
the hard copy UB-92 (HCFA-1450) report the applicable bill type in Form
Locator (FL) 4 Type of Bill.
Coding Requirements
Providers
must report HCPCS codes when submitting claims for MRA of the chest, abdomen,
head, neck or peripheral vessels of lower extremities along with an appropriate
revenue code. The following HCPCS codes should be used to report these
services:
| MRA of head and/or
neck |
70541, 70541-26,
70541-TC * |
| MRA of chest |
71555, 71555-26,
71555-TC * |
| MRA of abdomen |
74185, 74185-26,
74185-TC * |
| MRA of peripheral
vessels of lower extremities |
73725, 73725-26,
73725-TC * |
| |
*Technical Component |
Payment Requirements
Part
B deductible and coinsurance apply.
Providers must report
component services with the -26 (professional component) or -TC (technical
component) modifier when appropriate. Physicians performing both the professional
and the technical components for such services must bill without the modifier
unless the service is provided in a Health Professional Shortage Area.
|
TRANSMYOCARDIAL
REVASCULARIZATION FOR TREATMENT OF SEVERE ANGINA
Transmyocardial revascularization (TMR) is a surgical technique which uses
a laser to bore holes through the myocardium of the heart in an attempt
to restore perfusion to areas of the heart not being reached by diseased
or clogged arteries. This technique is used as a late or last resort for
relief of symptoms of severe angina in patients with ischemic heart disease
not amenable to direct coronary revascularization interventions, such as
angioplasty, stenting or open coronary bypass.
The precise workings
of this technique are not certain. The original theory, upon which the
technique was based, that the open channels would result in increased
perfusion of the myocardium, does not appear to be the major or only action
at work. Several theories have been proposed, including partial denervation
of the myocardium, or the triggering of the cascade of biological reactions
which encourage increased development of blood vessels.
However, research
at several facilities indicates that, despite this uncertainty, the technique
does offer relief of angina symptoms for a period of time in patients
for whom no other medical treatment offering relief is available. Studies
indicate that both reduction in pain and reduction in hospitalizations
are significant for most patients treated. Consequently, we have concluded
that, for patients with severe angina (Class III or IV, Canadian Cardiovascular
Society, or similar classification system) for whom all other medical
therapies have been tried or evaluated and found insufficient, such therapy
offers sufficient evidence of its medical effectiveness to treat the symptomatology.
It is important to note that this technique does not provide for increased
life expectancy, nor is it proven to affect the underlying cause of the
angina. However, it appears effective in treating the symptoms of angina,
and reducing hospitalizations and allowing patients to resume some of
their normal activities of daily living.
Program Memorandum
AB-99-22 and Coverage Issues Manual, section 35-94, provides coverage
of TMR as a late or last resort for patients with severe (Canadian Cardiovascular
Society Classification Classes III or IV) angina (stable or unstable)
for claims with dates of service furnished on or after July 1, 1999, which
has been found refractory to standard medical therapy, including drug
therapy at the maximum tolerated or maximum safe dosages in a hospital
inpatient setting. In addition, the angina symptoms must be caused by
areas of the heart not amenable to surgical therapies such as percutaneous
transluminal coronary angioplasty, stenting, coronary atherectomy, or
coronary bypass. Coverage is further limited to those uses of the laser
used in performing the procedure which have been approved by the Food
and Drug Administration for the purpose for which they are being used.
Patients have to meet
the following additional selection guidelines:
1. An ejection fraction
of 25% or greater;
2. Have areas of viable
ischemic myocardium (as demonstrated by diagnostic study) which are not
capable of being revascularized by direct coronary intervention; and,
3. Have been stabilized,
or have had maximal efforts to stabilize acute conditions such as severe
ventricular arrhythmias, decompensated congestive heart failure or acute
myocardial infarction.
Coverage is limited
to physicians who have been properly trained in the procedure. Providers
of this service must also document that all ancillary personnel, including
physicians, nurses, operating room personnel, and technicians, are trained
in the procedure and the proper use of the equipment involved. Coverage
is further limited to providers which have dedicated cardiac care units,
including the diagnostic and support services necessary for care of patients
undergoing this therapy. In addition, these providers must conform to
the standards for laser safety set by the American National Standards
Institute, ANSIZ1363. (See the Coverage Issues Manual, section 35-94,
for more information on the coverage criteria.)
Intermediary Billing
and Payment Instructions
Follow the general
bill review instructions in ß3604 of the Medicare Intermediary Manual,
Part 3. Hospitals bill using Form HCFA-1450 or its electronic equivalent
using bill type 11X. The ICD-9-CM procedure code must be 36.31 (open chest
TMR) for this service to be covered. This procedure code is currently
grouped to DRG 108.
|
HYPERBARIC
OXYGEN THERAPY
For purposes of coverage under Medicare, hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy
is a modality in which the entire body is exposed to oxygen under increased
atmospheric pressure. The effective date for implementation is April 1,
2000. The effective date refers to date of service. The following information
is from the Coverage Issues Manual, section 35-10 and Program Memorandum
AB-99-50.
A. Covered Conditions-Program
reimbursement for HBO therapy will be limited to that which is administered
in a chamber (including the one man unit) and is limited to the following
conditions:
l. Acute carbon
monoxide intoxication, (ICD-9 - CM diagnosis 986).
2. Decompression
illness, (ICD-9-CM diagnosis 993.2, 993.3).
3. Gas embolism,
(ICD-9-CM diagnosis 958.0, 999.1).
4. Gas gangrene,
(ICD-9-CM diagnosis 040.0).
5. Acute traumatic
peripheral ischemia. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is a valuable adjunctive
treatment to be used in combination with accepted standard therapeutic
measures when loss of function, limb, or life is threatened. (ICD-9-CM
diagnosis 902.53, 903.01, 903.1, 904.0, 904.41.)
6. Crush injuries
and suturing of severed limbs. As in the previous conditions, HBO therapy
would be an adjunctive treatment when loss of function, limb, or life
is threatened. (ICD-9-CM diagnosis 927.00- 927.03, 927.09-927.11, 927.20-927.21,
927.8-927.9, 928.00-928.01, 928.10-928.11, 928.20-928.21, 928.3, 928.8-928.9,
929.0, 929.9, 996.90- 996.99.)
7. Progressive
necrotizing infections (necrotizing fasciitis), (ICD-9-CM diagnosis
728.86).
8. Acute peripheral
arterial insufficiency, (ICD-9- CM diagnosis 444.21, 444.22, 444.81).
9. Treatment of
compromised skin grafts, (ICD- 9CM diagnosis 996.52; excludes artificial
skin graft).
10. Chronic refractory
osteomyelitis, unresponsive to conventional medical and surgical management,
(ICD-9-CM diagnosis 730.10-730.19).
11. Osteoradionecrosis
as an adjunct to conventional treatment, (ICD-9-CM diagnosis 526.89).
12. Soft tissue
radionecrosis as an adjunct to con- ventional treatment, (ICD-9-CM diagnosis
990).
13. Cyanide poisoning,
(ICD-9-CM diagnosis 987.7, 989.0).
14. Actinomycosis,
only as an adjunct to conven- tional therapy when the disease process
is refractory to antibiotics and surgical treatment, (ICD-9-CM diagnosis
039.0-039.4, 039.8, 039.9).
No program payment
may be made for any conditions other than those listed above.
B. Topical Application
of Oxygen-This method of administering oxygen does not meet the definition
of HBO therapy as stated above. Also, its clinical efficacy has not been
established. Therefore, no Medicare reimbursement may be made for the
topical application of oxygen.
C. Physician Supervision
Requirement-For HBO therapy to be covered under the Medicare program,
the physician must be in constant attendance during the entire treatment.
This is a professional activity that cannot be delegated in that it requires
independent medical judgement by the physician. The physician must be
present, carefully monitoring the patient during the hyperbaric oxygen
therapy session and be immediately available should a complication occur.
This requirement applies in all settings: no payment will be made under
Part A or Part B, unless the physician is in constant attendance during
the HBO therapy procedure.
D. Credentials-A
physician qualified in HBO therapy treatment is defined by Medicare for
this purpose to be credentialed by the hospital in which HBO therapy is
being performed specifically in hyperbaric medicine and the management
of acute cardiopulmonary emergencies, including placement of chest tube.
Credentialing includes, at a minimun, the following:
- Training, experience
and privileges within the institution to manage acute cardiopulmonary
emergencies, including advanced cardiac life support, and emergency
myringotomy;
- Completion of a
recognized hyperbaric medicine training program as established by either
the American College of Hyperbaric Medicine or the Undersea and Hyperbaric
Medical Society (UHMS) with a minimum of 60 hours of training and documented
by a certificate of completion or an equivalent program; and
- Continuing medical
education in hyperbaric medicine of a minimum of 16 hours every 2 years
after initial credentialing.
An additional requirement
that must be met for Medicare's payment for hyperbaric medical therapy
is that a cardiopulmonary resuscitation team coverage must be immediately
available during the hours of the hyperbaric chamber operation.
Physician credentialing
documentation must be kept in the patient's medical/file record.
Intermediary Billing
Instructions
The provider bills
using Form HCFA-1450 or its electronic equivalent using bill type 13X.
Providers must report HBO therapy under revenue code 413 using existing
HCPCS 99183 for physician attendance and supervision of hyperbaric oxygen
therapy, per session. Hospital inpatient claims use ICD-9 procedure code
93.95.
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HCFA
FORM 838 CREDIT BALANCE REPORT
Effective immediately, please submit all HCFA FORM 838 for credit balances
to the following address:
|
Veronica
Moore
Reimbursement Technician
Medicare Audit & Reimbursement Department
Maryland Medicare Part A
1946 Greenspring Drive
Timonium, MD 21093-4141
|
If a HCFA FORM 838
is not received in a timely fashion, that is, 30 days following the end
of a calendar quarter, your Medicare interim payments will be suspended
until you have submitted the report.
For quarter ending
September 30, 1999, the credit balance report must be postmarked on or
before October 30, 1999.
For your convenience,
below is a chart indicating the due dates for the quarterly Medicare credit
balance reports (HCFA Form 838) for the year 2000:
| Quarter Ending
|
Postmark Date |
| December 31,
1999 |
January 30, 2000 |
| March 31, 2000 |
April 30, 2000 |
| June 30, 2000 |
July 30, 2000 |
| September 30,
2000 |
October 30,
2000 |
| December 31,
2000 |
January 30, 2001 |
|
|
GAVEL
GRAVEL: THE MEDICARE DOCKET
By: Michael Berkey
May an intermediary
deny a reopening request without fear of any further appeal by a provider,
even if the intermediary's action is arbitrary, capricious, or just plain
wrong? In a unanimous decision, the U.S. Supreme Court resoundingly said
Yes!
A home health agency
in Tennessee learned that its previous fiscal intermediary had improperly
calculated allowable owner's compensation in 1987. Because the new fiscal
intermediary, based in South Carolina, had used the 1987 allowed amount
in its calculations of allowable owner's compensation for 1989, the provider
believed the settlement of the 1989 cost report was in error. By the time
of the discovery, the 180-day appeal period had run from the notice of
program reimbursement ("NPR") for the 1989 cost report, but
the 3-year period for reopenings had not. Citing the Provider Reimbursement
Manual provision that provides for reopenings where "new and material
evidence" is shown, the provider timely requested a reopening to
allow the intermediary to correct the mistake. The intermediary denied
the reopening request, and the home health agency appealed. The Provider
Reimbursement Review Board and the lower courts refused to hear the appeal,
citing a lack of jurisdiction.
The provider's main
argument was that the system was unfair if intermediaries could reopen
cost reports on their own motion to take money away from providers, but
providers could only "request" reopening to obtain additional
reimbursement. The Supreme Court disposed of this argument by weighing
the burden of the two groups:
"[W]e would not
be shocked by a system in which underpayments could never be the basis
for reopening. The few dozen fiscal intermediaries often need three years
within which to discover overpayments in the tens of thousands of NPRs
that they issue, while each of the tens of thousands of sophisticated
Medicare-provider recipients of these NPRs is generally capable of identifying
an underpayment in its own NPR within the 180-day time period." (Emphasis
added.)
The court also pointed
out that reopenings are regulatory, not statutory, and that the Medicare
program can regulate them as it wishes, including failing to grant an
appeal right for denials. Moreover, if appeals were granted from reopening
denials, then the 180-day appeal period from NPRs might effectively become
a 3-year appeal period through the reopening process. In short, a provider
can only rely on its 180-day appeal rights, and can not expect to use
the reopening process to score a Home run. (Your Home Visiting Nurse Services,
Inc. v. Shalala, U.S. Supreme Court, No. 97-1489, Feb. 23, 1999.)
|
STANDARD
PROVIDER LEVEL ADJUSTMENT REASON CODES
Listed below are
codes that could appear at the bottom of your remittance. These codes would
be located under Financial Adjustments. A positive number in monetary amount
elements have a negative arithmetic value in the balancing routines while
negative numbers in monetary amount elements have a positive arithmetic
value in the balancing routines. This list should be kept as a reference,
as the verbiage does not print on remittances.
|
CODE |
|
VALUE |
|
AA |
|
Receivable today |
|
AW |
|
Accelerated
payment withholding |
|
AP |
|
Accelerated
payment amount |
|
BD |
|
Bad Debt pass-through
amount |
|
BF |
|
Balance forward;
a negative balance to be carried forward and applied in a |
|
|
|
subsequent billing
cycle |
|
CA |
|
Manual claims
adjustment; approved claim payments calculated outside normal processing |
|
CO |
|
Carryover; a
negative balance amount which has been carried forward from a previous
billing cycle and applied to the current billing cycle |
|
CP |
|
Capital pass-through
amount |
|
CR |
|
Nurse anesthetist
pass-through amount (CRNA) |
|
CW |
|
Claim withholding |
|
CX |
|
Total cancel
claim amount |
|
DM |
|
Direct medical
education pass-through amount |
|
DS |
|
Disproportionate
share amount |
|
FS |
|
Final settlement
amount (Cost Report) |
|
GM |
|
Graduate medical
education pass-through amount |
|
IM |
|
Indirect medical
education pass-through amount |
|
IN |
|
Interest Paid |
|
IP |
|
Interest assessed
on late-filed cost reports and/or delinquent refunds |
|
KA |
|
Organ acquisition
pass-through amount |
|
LR |
|
Late cost report
and/or credit balance report penalty amount |
|
NP |
|
Non-physician
pass-through amount |
|
OA |
|
Part A offset
for affiliated provider |
|
OB |
|
Part B offset
for affiliated provider |
|
OR |
|
Overpayment
recovery; overpayment amount not fully satisfied in prior cycles |
|
OS |
|
Outside recovery;
money withheld for external organizations, i.e. , IRS |
|
PA |
|
Adjustment for
claims paid after PIP effective date (This amount must |
|
|
|
be multiplied
by negative one [-1].) |
|
PL |
|
PIP lump sum
adjustment |
|
PO |
|
Other pass-through
amount |
|
PP |
|
PIP payment |
|
PR |
|
Provider refund
adjustment (To be used for credit balance reconciliation.) |
|
PS |
|
Pass-through
lump sum adjustment |
|
PW |
|
Penalty withholding
|
|
RA |
|
Check received
from the provider for credit balancing for Part A amounts due. |
|
RB |
|
Check received
from the provider for credit balancing for Part B amounts due. |
|
RE |
|
Return on equity |
|
RF |
|
Refunds |
|
RI |
|
Reissued check
amount |
|
RS |
|
Penalty release
amount |
|
SW |
|
Penalty withhold
amount |
|
TR |
|
Retroactive
adjustment (Cost Report) |
|
TS |
|
Tentative settlement
(Cost Report) |
|
LEAVE
OF ABSENCE
There has been
some confusion regarding a leave of absence (LOA) in a skilled nursing facility
(SNF). A resident in a Medicare PPS skilled bed can utilize leave of absence
as long as it is not frequent or for prolonged periods away from the SNF.
A leave of absence can be the situation where the patient is absent, but
not discharged, for reasons other than admission to a hospital, other SNF,
or distinct part of the same SNF. A scenario has been developed to help
clarify questions on this issue.
- If a skilled resident
goes on a leave of absence on Friday evening and returns on Sunday evening,
is this considered a discharge and readmission?
- The day the patient
begins a leave of absence is treated as a day of discharge and is not
counted as an inpatient day unless they return to the facility by midnight
of the same day.
- The day the patient
returns to the facility from a leave of absence is treated as a day
of admission and is counted as an inpatient day if they are present
at midnight of that day.
- If the absence
exceeds 30 consecutive days, the 3-day qualifying hospital stay and
the 30-day transfer requirements must again be met to establish re-entitlement
to extended care benefits.
- Charges for the
days that the patient is on the leave of absence should not be shown
on the beneficiary's bill, nor can you bill the beneficiary for these
charges.
What affect does
the leave of absence have on the Minimum Data Set (MDS) schedule?
- The assessment
schedule is not altered by leave of absence days. Any benefit days not
utilized during the course of a stay could be billed based on the last
assessment for that beneficiary.
- Another event
that would generally end a beneficiary's "resident" status
for SNF consolidated billing purposes would be a beneficiary's formal
discharge from the SNF, or a departure from the SNF without a formal
discharge unless followed within 24 consecutive hours by a readmission
to that or another SNF.
|
TIMELY
FILING
The statute of limitation for submitting Medicare original and late charges
is listed below.
The Intermediary manual,
section 3307, states that Medicare cannot make payment for claims filed
after the timely filing limit.
| Date of Service |
Submit By |
| 10/1/1997-9/30/1998 |
12/31/1999 |
| 10/1/1998-9/30/1999 |
12/31/2000 |
| 10/1/1999-9/30/2000
|
12/31/2001 |
|
LIMITED
MEDICARE COVERAGE AND BILLING INSTRUCTIONS FOR ENHANCED EXTERNAL COUNTERPULSATION
Program Memorandum AB 99-20, revises Medicare's existing non-coverage policy
to one of limited coverage for Enhanced External CounterPulsation (EECP)
for claims with dates of service furnished on or after July 1, 1999. Enhanced
external counterpulsation is a non-invasive outpatient treatment for coronary
artery disease refractory to medical and/or surgical therapy. Although these
and similar devices are cleared by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
for use in treating a variety of conditions, including stable angina pectoris,
acute myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock, Medicare coverage is
limited to its use in patients with angina pectoris, since only that use
has developed sufficient evidence to demonstrate its medical effectiveness.
Other uses of this device and similar devices remain non-covered. In addition,
the non-coverage of hydraulic versions of these types of devices remains
in force.
Coverage is further
limited to those enhanced external counterpulsation systems that have
sufficiently demonstrated their medical effectiveness in treating patients
with severe angina in well-designed clinical trials. Note that a 510(k)
clearance by the Food and Drug Administration does not, by itself, satisfy
this requirement.
A full course of therapy
usually consists of 35 one-hour treatments, which may be offered once
or twice daily, (usually 5 days per week). The patient is placed on a
treatment table where their lower extremities are wrapped in a series
of three compressive air cuffs which inflate and deflate in synchronization
with the patient's cardiac cycle.
This service should
be billed using HCPC code 97016 (Application of a modality to one or more
areas; vasopneumatic devices), and must be performed under the direct
supervision of a physician.
Intermediary Billing
and Payment Instructions
Follow the general
bill review instructions in section 3604 of the Medicare Intermediary
Manual, Part 3. Providers submit using Form HCFA-1450 or the electronic
equivalent using bill type 12X, 13X, 22X, 23X, 74X, 75X, or 83X. The applicable
revenue codes for reporting this procedure are 42X or 43X. Until a specific
code for the EECP procedure is developed, providers must report HCPC code
97016. In addition, one of the following modifiers must be reported:
GO Service delivered
personally by an occupational therapist or under an outpatient occupational
therapy Plan of Care; or,
GP Service delivered
personally by a physical thera-
pist or under an outpatient physical therapy Plan of Care.
NOTE: For purposes
of the EECP procedure, if other than a therapist provides the service
the GP modifier should be reported.
Since this procedure
is an outpatient rehabilitation service, payment is made under the Medicare
Physician Fee Schedule (refer to Provider Bulletin dated 1/4/1999 for
additional payment information).
Deductible and coinsurance
apply. Coinsurance for this service is made at 20 percent of the lower
of the actual charge or the fee schedule amount.
|
VAGUS
NERVE STIMULATION FOR TREATMENT OF SEIZURES
The following information from the Coverage Issues Manual, section 60-22,
is effective for services furnished on or after July 1, 1999.
In the past 10 years,
there have been significant advances in surgical treatment for epilepsy
and in medical treatment of epilepsy with newly developed and approved
medications. Despite these advances, 25-50 percent of patients with epilepsy
experience breakthrough seizures or suffer from debilitating adverse effects
of antiepileptic drugs.
The vagus nerve is
a mixed nerve carrying both somatic and visceral afferent and efferent
signals. The majority of vagal nerve fibers are visceral afferents with
wide distribution. The basic premise of vagus nerve stimulation in the
treatment of epilepsy is that vagal visceral afferents have a diffuse
central nervous system projection and the activation of these pathways
has a widespread effect upon neuronal excitability. Besides activation
of well-defined reflexes, vagal stimulation produces evoked potentials
recorded from the cerebral cortex, the hippocampus, the thalamus, and
the cerebellum.
The vagus nerve stimulation
system is comprised of an implantable pulse generator and lead, and an
external programming system used to change stimulation settings. Clinical
evidence has shown that vagus nerve stimulation is a safe and effective
treatment for patients with medically refractory partial onset seizures,
for whom surgery is not recommended or for whom surgery has failed. Vagus
nerve stimulation is not covered for patients with other types of seizure
disorders which are medically refractory and for whom surgery is not recommended
or for whom surgery has failed.
A partial onset seizure
has a focal onset in one area of the brain and may or may not involve
a loss of motor control or alteration of consciousness. Partial onset
seizures may be simple, complex, or complex partial seizures, secondarily
generalized.
The neurostimulator
pulse generator is implanted subcutaneously below the left clavicle and
the lead is attached to the vagus nerve in the neck. The procedure is
performed in the hospital and usually requires an overnight stay. The
procedure is usually coded using HCPC codes 64573 (lead placement), and
64590 (generator implantation).
The ICD-9-CM procedure
code for implantation of a neurostimulator into the vagus nerve is 04.92.
The diagnosis codes for intractable epilepsy are 345.01, 345.11, 345.41,
345.51, and 345.91. Infrequently, contractors might see the diagnosis
code for convulsions, 780.3, used to identify eligible patients.
|
DISCLOSING
NON-MEDICARE ACTIVITIES ON COST REPORTS
Maryland Medicare wishes to remind providers that the cost report is designed
to include all costs of a Medicare-certified entity, both Medicare costs
and non-Medicare costs. We have seen some providers, particularly outpatient
physical therapy providers, attempt to file a cost report claiming only
the Medicare costs and patients on the report, instead of the costs and
statistics relating to the entire enterprise. Such providers sometimes allocate
each category of expense each month by number of Medicare and non-Medicare
visits, or use some other pre-cost report allocation statistic. Again, the
Medicare cost report is designed to handle all the costs of the facility
and to take into account any non-Medicare functions. There are many acceptable
ways to avoid any inappropriate allocations that the step-down process might
make, but failing to report non-Medicare costs is not one of them.
The regulations at
42 CFR 413.20(a) require that a provider begin the cost report process
with the "data available from the institution's basic accounts,"
and that requires that no allocations be made prior to entering the information
from those basic accounts onto the cost report. Failing to disclose all
the appropriate costs on the cost report, for whatever reason, could subject
a provider to rejection of the cost report, delayed reimbursement and
penalties, and/or a costly fraud and abuse investigation.
As always, providers
should ensure that key provider personnel as well as any cost report preparation
consultants are fully aware of proper cost reporting practices and procedures.
If you have any cost report preparation problems or if you have questions
about proposed alternative cost reporting methods or allocation situations,
please contact the auditor or supervisor responsible for your facility.
|
FORM
HCFA 339 FILING REQUIREMENTS
This reminder is being issued to clarify some filing requirements for the
Form HCFA 339, Provider Cost Report Reimbursement Questionnaire.
Who Should File
Form HCFA 339
HCFA Pub. 15-II, Section
1100 requires all providers filing a full Medicare cost report to submit
a properly completed Form HCFA 339 with the cost report filing. This includes
not only hospitals, SNFs, CORFs, and OPTs, but also ESRDs, Home Offices,
etc. There has been some question lately as to whether or not ESRD facilities
must complete the HCFA 339, because this facility type is not specifically
listed on the first page of Exhibit 1. Not every cost report form is listed.
Instead, a line for "Other" cost reports is included on the
first page.
Failure to submit
a properly completed Form HCFA 339 will result in rejection of the cost
report being filed. In the case of a home office, besides rejection of
the cost report, all home office costs will be eliminated from the related
provider cost reports.
Expansion of Services
and/or Business
All providers should have completed and attached a questionnaire regarding
expansion of services to the front of their Form HCFA 339. This was effective
for cost reporting periods ending on or after June 30, 1998.
If you have not done
so, and have any questions, please contact your assigned Medicare Auditor.
Owner's/Management
Personnel Compensation
PPS Hospitals are
not required to complete Exhibit 6 of Form HCFA 339. However, any cost
based units attached to the PPS hospital are now required to complete
Exhibit 6, effective for cost reporting periods ending on or after June
30, 1998.
Compensation must
be reported for not more than the top 10 management personnel. The exhibit
for owners and relatives is not limited to 10 individuals. All owners
and relatives must be included in the report. This is in addition
to the manager's exhibit.
If you have any questions
regarding the above or any other issues regarding filing Form HCFA 339,
please contact your assigned Medicare Auditor.
|
| PROSPECTIVE
PAYMENT SYSTEM-BILLING
Under the Prospective
Payment System (PPS), residents are assessed on a mandated schedule and
each assessment predetermines (in advance) the number of Part A days that
can be billed. The number of days paid are specific days of the 100 day
benefit period.
- 5 day assessment
provides the billing code for days 1-14
- 14 day assessment
provides the billing code for days 15-30
- 30 day assessment
provides the billing code for days 31-60
- 60 day assessment
provides the billing code for days 61-90
- 90 day assessment
provides the billing code for days 91-100
EXAMPLE: (For
1 month's bill) Admission on July 1; Billing Period is July 1-31
- The 5 day assessment
rugged at SSB will pay for July 1-14 (14 days)
- The 14 day assessment
rugged at SSC will pay for July 15-30 (16 days)
- The 30 day assessment
rugged at SSB will pay for July 31 (1 day )
For a resident remaining
in the SNF, on the August bill, you will see SSB02 for 29 days and the
60 day RUG for the remaining 2 days of the month. The August claim cannot
be submitted until the July claim is processed, therefore, the SNF billing
office must store data until it can be used to prepare the August claim.
|
|
HELPFUL
HINTS FOR PROVIDERS
- Please share all
Intermediary News and Provider Bulletins with your staff. We have received
many inquiries that could have been answered by reading one of our published
articles.
- Make sure that
the beneficiary's name and Medicare number are verified by accessing
HIQA through the Florida Shared System (FSS).
- Maintain a copy
of each beneficiary's Medicare card.
- Share Medicare
claims knowledge with other staff members.
- Providers should
be prepared when calling Provider Relations. Please have the Medicare
number, date of service, provider number and writing material ready
when you call.
- Providers submitting
claims using the UB92 can call Provider Relations at 410-561-0541.
- Providers submitting
claims using the HCFA 1500 can call Trailblazer at 410-771-6111 to speak
with a representative or 1-800-862-8162 to use an automated service.
- Record in the
beneficiary's chart where the beneficiary is being transferred to or
from where the beneficiary came. This helps with claims processing when
the claim is properly coded,
|
APPEALS
PROCESS FOR PART B SERVICES
An appeal must be requested within six months from the date of the denial
letter or the remittance notice for Part B services. Please submit the appeal
timely in order
to avoid dismissal of the appeal.
When requesting an
appeal, please follow the procedures outlined below:
- Submit a written
request for an appeal,
- Submit a hard copy
of the UB92 claim,
- Submit all records
and an itemized bill to support the appeal,
- Submit a copy of
the denial letter and/or the remittance notice displaying the denial
code.
Send all appeal requests
to:
Maryland Medicare
Part A
APPEALS-Medical Review
1946 Greenspring Drive
Timonium, MD 21093-4141
RECONSIDERATION
PROCESS FOR PART A SERVICES
If a provider disagrees
with the Intermediary's initial decision for Part A services, the provider
has sixty (60) days from the date of receipt of the initial denial to
request a reconsideration.
When requesting a
reconsideration, please follow the procedures outlined below:
- Submit a written
request for a second reconsideration,
- Submit a hard copy
of the UB92 billing from,
- Submit all records
and an itemized bill to support the reconsideration,
- Submit a copy of
the denial letter and/or the remittance notice displaying the denial
code.
Please submit the
reconsideration request timely to avoid dismissal of the reconsideration.
Send all reconsideration
request to:
Maryland Medicare
Part A
RECONSIDERATION-Medical Review
1946 Greenspring Drive
Timonium, MD 21093-4141
|
CRYOSURGERY
OF THE PROSTATE GLAND
Effective for claims with dates of service on or after July 1, 1999, Medicare
will cover cryosurgery of the prostate gland. The coverage is only for primary
treatment of patients with clinically localized prostate cancer, Stages
T1-T3 (diagnosis code is 185 - malignant neoplasm of prostate). Cryosurgery
of the prostate gland, also known as cryosurgical ablation of the prostate
(CAP), destroys prostate tissue by applying extremely cold temperatures
in order to reduce the size of the prostate gland (ICD-9 CM procedure code
60.62 - perineal prostatectomy (the definition includes cryoablation of
prostate, cryoprostatectomy of prostate, and radical cryosurgical ablation
of prostate)).
The evidence is not
yet sufficient to demonstrate the effectiveness of this procedure as salvage
therapy for local failures after radical prostatectomy, external beam
irradiation, and brachytherapy. Therefore, cryosurgery of the prostate
as salvage therapy is not covered under Medicare.
This procedure should
only be rendered in an outpatient hospital setting (bill types 13x and
83x).
Billing and Payment
Requirements
Claims for cryosurgery
of the prostate gland are to be submitted on the Form HCFA-1450 or electronic
equivalent. Follow the instructions in ß3604 of the Medicare Intermediary
Manual.
The HCPCS codes which
will indicate that the procedure was rendered are:
G0160 -
Cryosurgical ablation of localized prostate cancer, primary treatment
only (postoperative irrigations and aspiration of sloughing tissue included).
This service may be
paid only for patients with clinically localized prostate cancer, Stages
T1-T3.
G0161 -
Ultrasonic guidance for interstitial cryosurgical probe placement.
This service may be
paid only for patients with clinically localized prostate cancer, Stages
T1-T3; and when a claim for G0160 on the same date of service and for
the same beneficiary has been approved for payment.
|
PROVIDER
ADDRESSES AND PHONE NUMBERS
In order to update and maintain our files, please provide us with the most
current mailing address so that you can receive all Medicare literature
and remittances. Please have the areas below completed by a patient account
manager or supervisor and promptly return it to:
Maryland Medicare
Provider Relations
Address Update
1946 Greenspring Drive
Timonium, MD 21093-4141
OR FAX to 410-561-7951
Your help will be
greatly appreciated.
Send all literature,
seminar notices, record requests, etc. to:
Provider #: _________________________________________________________________________
Provider Name: _____________________________________________________________________
Your Name & Title: __________________________________________________________________
Provider Address: ___________________________________________________________________
Is the above address, a central mailing address? YES___ NO___
If a central address, please list all provider numbers.
Is the remittance mailed to the same address as above? YES___ NO___
If no, please provide
mailing address for remittance
Provider #: _________________________________________________________________________
Provider Name: _____________________________________________________________________
Your Name & Title: __________________________________________________________________
Do you receive the
payment through electronic funds transfer (EFT)?
YES____ NO___
Do you receive the remittance electronically (ERA)?
YES____ NO___
|
|